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How exactly do countries go about devaluing their currency?

Published by: wktd 2009-01-08
  • How does a country devalue its currency under a floating exchange rate? This seems simple to do under a gold standard: simply declare that you have reduced the amount of gold your government will trade for the paper money. But in a floating exchange-rate situation, how does this work? For example, I hear that before adopting the euro, the Italian government would regularly devalue the lira to get it out of economic scrapes (that's why there were so many zeros in the lira). Consider this sentence, from today's NYT: "The Italian economy is in recession. Before the advent of the eruo, Italy could always devalue the lirra in order to spur growth by making its exports cheaper and, in that way, more attractive." But I've also heard it said the U.S. government might be forced to devalue the dollar as a way of escaping our twin trade and budget deficits. But if the price of the dollar on the foreign exchange market is determined by supply and demand, it's not clear how such a plan is actually carried out. The only answer I can think of is that the government simply prints more money, which would of course quickly and effectively devalue the currency. Is there another way this is done . . . ?


  • In my view, it is as follows: 1) Under a *floating* exchange rate, countries do not devaluate their currency - the exchange rate is determined by the market, i.e. demand for and supply of the currency. - Countries do devaluate under a *fixed* exchange rate regime. In that case, the monetary authority (i.e. the central bank, the government, the Ministry of Finance) simply declared that it will by foreign currency at an exchange rate of x [domestic/foreign currency]. The exchange x can be changed at any time. Note, however, that a "wrong" exchange rate implies that the monetary authority either rapidly accumulates international reserves - i.e. it is forced to buy a lot of foreign money - or its international reserves shrink rapidly. This is because citizens (and speculators) realise that they can make a profit by engaging in a currency transaction. Coming back to Italy: Italy had a "quasi-fixed" exchange rate prior to the adoption of the euro - i.e. it was part of the European Monetary System EMS, under which exchange rates were kept fixed (or better: were floating within a narow band). While several currencies were not revalued for various years, the Italian lira was repeatedly devaluated, in order to restore competitiveness.


  • It's good to see you're back around, gnossie. I hope the answers to your earlier Qs were satisfactory. Oroblram is basically correct. Think of a spectrum of different exhange rate regimes: the most liberal is a freely-floating rate determined only by the market... the most conservative is a hard peg (like China... ~8.28 rmb/$). Under the more liberal systems, the country can "jawbone" its currency downward. Generally, when someone in government says "we would like to see our currency fall", it will do so. The country can also practice stealth intervention in the market, where it transacts in forex to lower its currency without officially declaring. Under the more conservative systems, the country can either move the bottom end of its trading band downward, move the midpoint of its trading band downward, or move its fixed peg downward.





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